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Can a tort only exist if the person who commits it intended to do so?

Karen Wright

in Schools

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Rodney Fox on August 23, 2019

No, the defendant does not have to have the "intention" to be held liablefor a tort. The plaintiff only has to prove that the damages were caused and that the defendant caused. Wheafter the defendant caused themintentionally or by negligence is usually irrelevant.


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